Comments on: .List of All Articles http://brethrenassembly.com A Place To Study New Testament Truths And Fundamental Doctrines Sun, 05 Sep 2010 23:28:24 -0500 http://wordpress.org/?v=2.8 hourly 1 By: Rev.Boris Jovanovich http://brethrenassembly.com/all-articles-listed/#comment-30439 Rev.Boris Jovanovich Fri, 16 Oct 2009 16:15:31 +0000 http://brethrenassembly.com/all-articles-listed#comment-30439 This is indeed a list to look for.God Bless This is indeed a list to look for.God Bless

]]> By: Amir Subba http://brethrenassembly.com/all-articles-listed/#comment-27325 Amir Subba Tue, 02 Jun 2009 18:59:24 +0000 http://brethrenassembly.com/all-articles-listed#comment-27325 I recently read or i would say went through the article i got it over the internet "An Introduction To The Scriptures And Philosophy Of Hinduism From A Christian Perspective Dr. Johnson C. Philip & Dr. Saneesh Cherian" wherein i found out a para mentioning about the word of GOD only being given to Jews ... "Further, the Old Testament repeatedly affirmed that the word of God was given only to (and through) the Jewish people." All i want to know is aren't there any chances or possibilities that the words might have traveled to India and they have framed it in the Vedas... !!! There were traders and travelers around the world. Or it could be the Jews, they might have preached their religion in India as they were in India about 2500 yrs ago, almost making it 500 yrs BC. So, it may not be the direct words of Almighty but a preached version. P.S. I didn't know where to put up my Question. Hope it is the right place. I recently read or i would say went through the article i got it over the internet “An Introduction To The Scriptures And Philosophy Of Hinduism From A Christian Perspective
Dr. Johnson C. Philip & Dr. Saneesh Cherian”
wherein i found out a para mentioning about the word of GOD only being given to Jews … “Further, the Old Testament repeatedly affirmed that the word of God was given only to (and through) the Jewish people.”
All i want to know is aren’t there any chances or possibilities that the words might have traveled to India and they have framed it in the Vedas… !!! There were traders and travelers around the world.
Or it could be the Jews, they might have preached their religion in India as they were in India about 2500 yrs ago, almost making it 500 yrs BC.
So, it may not be the direct words of Almighty but a preached version.

P.S. I didn’t know where to put up my Question. Hope it is the right place.

]]>