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I recently read or i would say went through the article i got it over the internet “An Introduction To The Scriptures And Philosophy Of Hinduism From A Christian Perspective
Dr. Johnson C. Philip & Dr. Saneesh Cherian”
wherein i found out a para mentioning about the word of GOD only being given to Jews … “Further, the Old Testament repeatedly affirmed that the word of God was given only to (and through) the Jewish people.”
All i want to know is aren’t there any chances or possibilities that the words might have traveled to India and they have framed it in the Vedas… !!! There were traders and travelers around the world.
Or it could be the Jews, they might have preached their religion in India as they were in India about 2500 yrs ago, almost making it 500 yrs BC.
So, it may not be the direct words of Almighty but a preached version.

P.S. I didn’t know where to put up my Question. Hope it is the right place.